I cannot understand the difference between a direct and indirect object pronoun in spanish. It has been bothering me that I can't get this. I usually understand it when I read a sentence with them, but have trouble when trying to write them.

Answer 1

It helps if you have studied them in English class. Usually the textbooks present the direct object first. Here they are in Spanish and then English:
me = "me" as in He sees me.
te = "you" familiar, singular as in I see y ou.

lo = "it" or "him" or "you" as in I see him. I see it (representing a masculine, singular noun) or you (usted) masculine and singular

la = "it" or "her" or "you" but "it" and "you-formal, singular) must be feminine as wel as singular.
(Those were the singular; now the plural.)

nos = "us" = He sees us.
os = "you-all" being feminine and plural
los = "them" (people or things) = I see them.
las = "them" (people or thin gs) but must be feminine and plural.

(Now get the Direct Objects straight.)

Here are the Indirect Object Pronouns. Either STATED or UNDERSTOOD are the words: to, for, at, from

me = to/for/at/from me as in He gave me the book. What did he give? the book = Direct Object Pronoun. To WHOM did he give the book? To me = Indirect Object Pronoun.
te = to/for/at/from you (singular, familiar)
le = to/for/at/from him or her or you (usted, singular, formal)
(Those are the singular forms. Now for the plural.)
nos = to/for/at/from us
os = to/for/at/from you-all (plural & familiar)
les = to/for/at/from them (people or things), or you-all (ustedes = plural and formal)

Now comes the more difficult part. When you have one of each in a sentence. NOTE: both the direct-object and the indirect-object pronouns are the same h ere: me, te, nos, os. (In other words, you don't really have to understand the grammar.) BUT in the 3rd person, singular or plural, you must distinguish bet ween the Direct Object (lo, la, los, las) an the Indirect Object: le, les.)

Now for the position(s) of the Object Pronouns. When in doubt, put them in front of the conjugated verb EXCEPT with an affirmative command. Then they are ATTACHED to the verb form, with an accent mark placed where you want to hear the stress. It helps to sound it out loud, if you have a good sound system!
(If you need examples, ask.)

To further "muddy the waters" the Direct Object goes directly in front of the verb and the Indirect Object pronoun in front of that. Me lo da. = He gives it to me. Now, when BOTH le or les is followed by lo, la, los, or las, the LE or LES changes to SE. I give it to him. = Se lo doy.

When do the object pronouns NOT go in front of the conjugated verb? ONCE it must not = affirmative command = dámelo (give it to be, "it" being anything masculine & singular, for example "el libro"). TWICE you have a choice. EITHER in front of the conjugated verb OR after the verb form (note I did not say conjugated verb here), with an accent mark if it is necessary. That is with a gerund (-ndo form) or an infinitive (-ar, -er, -ir).

Both are correct here and note that wherever I put the object pronouns, they stay together :
Se lo voy a dar. OR Voy a dárselo.
Se lo estoy dando. OR Estoy dándoselo.

Please feel free to ask any questions or to see more examples.

Sra

Answer 2

Thank you! This helped a lot. I do have a couple questions though. So you wouldn't use "se" in a sentence without a direct object pronoun after it?

I'm trying to disect these sentences. So with "Se lo doy" doy = I give; lo= it; and se = him?

Answer 3

Direct Object = What gets "verbed"
Indirect Object = Indirectly affected by the verb

Example: I threw a rock at Biff.

Direct Object = rock (It got thrown.)
Indirect Object = Biff (He didn't get thrown, but the throwing affected him because of the rock.)

DOPs and IOPs should be used as appropriate to which objects you're representing.

Mnemonic: Lola's a DOPe. (Lo, la, los, las are Direct Object Pronouns)