Can someone please help me answer this question

Question

Historians traditionally date the end of the Roman Empire to 476 AD. Why is this? Is this
a good date to use for the end of Rome? Why or why not? Does this date adequately capture the
end of the so­called “Greco­Roman” world? Responses which include a wide array of material
from this period will more thoroughly address the question

Answer 1

Here are a few resources:

http://www.google.com/search?sourceid=navclient&aq=&oq=the+fall+of+the+roman+&ie=UTF-8&rlz=1T4VRHB_enUS648US649&q=the+fall+of+the+roman+empire&gs_l=hp..0.0l5.0.0.1.336147...........0.TD7Id98Bfug

Answer 2

Certainly, Greco-Roman influence did not end with the collapse of the Roman Empire:

http://www.google.com/search?sourceid=navclient&aq=&oq=greco-roman+influence&ie=UTF-8&rlz=1T4VRHB_enUS648US649&q=greek+roman+influence+on+western+civilization+&gs_l=hp..4.0l3j0i22i30j0i22i10i30.0.0.2.160546...........0.3QKr3O-Z42Y