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Does (1-cosx)^2 simplify to sin^2(x)?

15 years ago

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Reiny
no
you are thinking of 1 - cos^2 x , which is equal to sin^2 x

in yours, notice where the exponent is,
it is outside the brackets, so you are squaring a binomial and you would get
1 - 2cosx + cos^2 x
15 years ago

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