Asked by Triple_A_Math
For the trig equation: 2sin(x)tan(x) = tan(x),
Why can't I just divide both sides by tan(x) and be left to solve only 2sin(x)=1?
Why can't I just divide both sides by tan(x) and be left to solve only 2sin(x)=1?
Answers
Answered by
Anonymous
I do not see why not.
x = 30 degrees or 180 - 30 etc
x = 30 degrees or 180 - 30 etc
Answered by
mathhelper
Ahh, but then you would lose solutions....
2sin(x)tan(x) = tan(x)
2sinx tanx - tanx = 0
tanx(2sinx - 1) = 0
tanx = 0 or sinx = 1/2
so tanx = 0
x = 0, 180
or
sinx = 1/3
x = 30° , 150°
so x = 0°, 30°, 150°, 180°, 360° in the domain 0 ≤ x ≤ 360°
2sin(x)tan(x) = tan(x)
2sinx tanx - tanx = 0
tanx(2sinx - 1) = 0
tanx = 0 or sinx = 1/2
so tanx = 0
x = 0, 180
or
sinx = 1/3
x = 30° , 150°
so x = 0°, 30°, 150°, 180°, 360° in the domain 0 ≤ x ≤ 360°
Answered by
Triple_A_Math
Okay thanks! Makes sense now
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