Asked by sam
suppose a>0 and n is a positive interger. is (1/a)^-n = 1/a^-n ? explain your answer
Answers
Answered by
Reiny
yes
recall that (a/b)^n = a^n/b^n
so (1/a)^-n
= 1^-n / a^-n
but (1)^anything = 1
= 1/a^-n
recall that (a/b)^n = a^n/b^n
so (1/a)^-n
= 1^-n / a^-n
but (1)^anything = 1
= 1/a^-n
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