suppose a>0 and n is a positive interger. is (1/a)^-n = 1/a^-n ? explain your answer

Answer 1

yes

recall that (a/b)^n = a^n/b^n

so (1/a)^-n
= 1^-n / a^-n
but (1)^anything = 1

= 1/a^-n