Studies find a negative correlation between hours spent watching television and scores on reading tests. Does watching television make people less able to read? Probably, but this doesn't follow from the data. The studies are observational, and it might

Question

be that the causality runs in the other direction. Explain, describing what is the alternative explanation and what is meant by the phrase "the causality might run in the other direction."

Answer 1

In this case, poorer readers might resort to watching more television because of their reading problems.

Although I cannot think of an example in this case, there might be a third variable causing the changes in both reading and TV watching. (This would be a third direction.)

I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.