Sorry hit enter before i was done.
... comparing Oedipus Rex,Hamlet, King Lear and Death of a Sales men
I say they are the same. a tragedy for a rich person is no different compared to a poor person except the fact that for a rich person it affects more people.
However, i am having troubles comming up with arguments for this from these text. If someone could help me out that would be great!
How is the tragedy of a rich and powerful person different than that of a poor and powerless person?
3 answers
I agree that they are the same. A tragedy, by definition, comes from within the person, not outside circumstances (like a storm or an auto accident). It comes in how that person reacts to and acts upon those circumstances. Lear trusts the wrong people. Willy Loman has based his life on dreams and appearances instead of reality. In each case, the people affected are those closest to him (or her), not necessarily more or fewer, regardless of how rich or poor he/she is.
Read lots and see how each of these plays is a tragedy:
http://www.bing.com/search?q=classical+tragedy&form=EDGNTC&qs=PF&cvid=70da783927744fd7a58b1705e2f7f615&pq=classical+tragedy&cc=US&setlang=en-US
Read lots and see how each of these plays is a tragedy:
http://www.bing.com/search?q=classical+tragedy&form=EDGNTC&qs=PF&cvid=70da783927744fd7a58b1705e2f7f615&pq=classical+tragedy&cc=US&setlang=en-US
Thanks that's really good! gives me a lot to think and read about.