Asked by Arthur
Hello my problem is the next one:
g is a function between the interval (a,b)and "p" is a fixed point in (a,b) that`s mean that g(p)=p. If g can be derivated in that interval and /g(x)/<1 to all the interval. Demonstrate using the Mean value theorem that there is ONLY one Fixed POINT in (a,b).
g is a function between the interval (a,b)and "p" is a fixed point in (a,b) that`s mean that g(p)=p. If g can be derivated in that interval and /g(x)/<1 to all the interval. Demonstrate using the Mean value theorem that there is ONLY one Fixed POINT in (a,b).
Answers
Answered by
Steve
Your typo does not help, but the problem is discussed here:
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/217026/show-that-f-has-at-most-one-fixed-point
remember that google is your friend.
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/217026/show-that-f-has-at-most-one-fixed-point
remember that google is your friend.
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