Asked by Sean
Can someone prove (informally) the following theory:
If there is a differentiable function, f, that is represented by a Taylor series, T, then the convergence interval for series T is identical to the convergence interval for the term-by-term derivative T'.
If there is a differentiable function, f, that is represented by a Taylor series, T, then the convergence interval for series T is identical to the convergence interval for the term-by-term derivative T'.
Answers
Answered by
Sean
Nevermind. I can now understand this at an intuitive level and a more formal proof isn't necessary.
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