A meteorite of mass m= 2×10^4 kg is approaching head-on a planet of mass M= 4×10^29 kg and radius R= 2×10^4 km. Assume that the meteorite is initially at a very large distance from the planet where it has a speed v0= 5×10^2 km/s. Take G= 6.67×10^−11.

Determine the speed of the meteorite v (in m/s) just before it hits the surface of the planet. (The planet has no atmosphere, so we can neglect all friction before impact)

v=

User Icon for bobpursley bobpursley answered
10 years ago

The potential energy of the meteorite is approximately GMm/distance.

Add that PE, and the initial KE of the meteorite, and that is the final KE of the body, 1/2 mv^2, solve for v.

User Icon for Phy Phy answered
10 years ago

What is the distance here?

User Icon for KUNOI KUNOI answered
10 years ago

My bob that approach got me a wrong answer. :(

User Icon for Phy Phy answered
10 years ago

Yes, this method is not working

User Icon for KS KS answered
10 years ago

try PE=0 as its at infinity

User Icon for ss01 ss01 answered
10 years ago

5*10^5 m/s ???

User Icon for Anon Anon answered
10 years ago

Well, think a little... If you're at an infinity distance, your gravitational potential must be zero, as you see: -mMG/distance, if distance is infinity, it doesn't metter -mMG as somehow it is some constant. So, you have some velocity at "infinity" so you have some kinect energy, (m * v0^2)/2... So you see, conservation says that Potential_A + Kinect_A must be equal to Potential_B + Kinect_B, so at B, it will be when you hit the planet... Well, now you're not anymore at some infinity distance, so you have some potential energy, from the distance of the center of the planet, that distance is R, then you have -mMG/R, and now you have some Kinect energy, m * v1^2/2, this v1^2 is the "collision" velocity. So, all you must do now, is put v1 at evidence, then you have something like this: m*v0^2/2 = -mMG/R + m*v1^2/2; cut down those "m", you have v0^2/2 = -MG/R + v1^2/2; put v1^2 at evidence "throwing" -MG/R to the otherside, you have: v1^2/2 = v0^2/2 + MG/R; "throw" 2 to the otherside: v1^2 = v0^2 (you don't need 2 here, cause it's already divided by 2) + 2MG/R; Almost there now, now you take the square root of it: v1 = sqrt(v0^2 + 2MG/R). So, now you have it. Just remember, at infinity, potential energy is zero, and remember to convert those values. I guess you'll get something like v1 = 1.708x10^6. I hope it helps. Good luck.

User Icon for mouse mouse answered
10 years ago

The formula for the meteorite problem is:

KE(initial)=KE(final) - GMm/(Radius of Earth)

Can somebody please help with the aeroplane landing and Pendulum problems? :(

User Icon for fellow 801xer fellow 801xer answered
10 years ago

hi buddies, for the airplane:

physicsforums com showthread.php?t=720405

I've worked out the pendulum and will post the solution as soon as i wake up now i need sleep, we have still 2 days left so no worries

User Icon for ss01 ss01 answered
10 years ago

@fellow 801xer please tell the mass pushed by spring too

User Icon for 8.01x 8.01x answered
10 years ago

guys guys ..listen..! just keep it simple ..! v_1=sqrt((v_o)^2+2GM/R). be careful and ur units must be in m/sec for velocity and kgs for mass 1km/sec=1000m/sec. 1km/sec=1000m/sec..

User Icon for ss01 ss01 answered
10 years ago

anyone will mass pushed by spring?

User Icon for mouse mouse answered
10 years ago

Listen... guys, I can help with all the problems barring the airliner, pendulum and mass-spring.... please let me know if you guys need any of the other answers and if you have solutions to the problems I'm stuck on?

User Icon for ss01 ss01 answered
10 years ago

i just need mass spring and airliner last 2 question and the block on rotating disc

User Icon for mouse mouse answered
10 years ago

ss01... tell me the answers/formulae for pendulum???

Block on rotating disk is easy - I got option (a) :)

solve for v: mv^2/R=umg....

User Icon for Phy Phy answered
10 years ago

I need help for airliner and double well potential ( K=? T=? )

User Icon for Phy Phy answered
10 years ago

And also for sliding down the dome's 2nd part

User Icon for Troll Troll answered
10 years ago

For the pendulum just review L18 video 3. For a) you should use the conservation of mechanical energy (mv(bot)^2)/2 = (mv0^2)/2 + mgh where h is the distance of the ball from the ground calculated as h = L*(1-cos(theta)). For b) put together y component of gravitational force and centrifugal force. The other problems are just motion of the projectile where you know v0 and angle.

User Icon for mouse mouse answered
10 years ago

Troll.... what's the angle of launch for the projectile???

like, suppose the string was cut at and angle alpha=70degrees, the launch angle is 70 degs too???

User Icon for Troll Troll answered
10 years ago

It is because it goes off on a tangent. The direction of motion is perpendicular to the line of the pendulum at all times.

User Icon for Anon Anon answered
10 years ago

For v_1, you have sqrt(v_0^2 - 2*G*(L(1 - cos(alpha)))), right? For tension, you use T = Fgravitational + Fcentrifugal, where Fg = m*g*cos(alpha) and Fc = m*(v_1)^2/L. Then for max height you'll have something like this: (v_1 * sin(alpha))^2/(2*G), and for alpha you use your given angle. If something is wrong, just say it.

User Icon for Anonymous Anonymous answered
10 years ago

Block on rotating disk is easy -

solve for v: mv^2/R=umg....what's u?