Asked by Mikal
Ive been shown that a function can be written like so
f:X->Y,f(x)=rule
where X is the Domain and Y, the co-domain. Firstly, what is the co-domain? Ive tried looking it up but all I get is "the set of which y values fall in".
If that is the case, say for the function, y=1/(x-1), do I write it like this
f:R\{1}->R\{0},f(x)=1/(x-1)
or instead of R\{0}, just
f:R\{1}->R,f(x)=1/(x-1)?? Where R is the set of all real numbers.
And please, if the answer is both, which would be "more right"?
f:X->Y,f(x)=rule
where X is the Domain and Y, the co-domain. Firstly, what is the co-domain? Ive tried looking it up but all I get is "the set of which y values fall in".
If that is the case, say for the function, y=1/(x-1), do I write it like this
f:R\{1}->R\{0},f(x)=1/(x-1)
or instead of R\{0}, just
f:R\{1}->R,f(x)=1/(x-1)?? Where R is the set of all real numbers.
And please, if the answer is both, which would be "more right"?
Answers
Answered by
lllllllllllll
i don't really know because one where is your numbers at
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