4 answers
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A bag contains 9 blue marbles and 1 green marble. What is the probability of drawing a blue marble followed by a green marble, without replacing the first marble before drawing the second marble?
Is the answer 1/9?
bobpursley
answered
11 years ago
11 years ago
Pressley
answered
4 years ago
4 years ago
if you start with 10 marbles in total, 9 of them are blue. So we can say that is 9/10. Now you have 9 marbles left because you took one out. we know that we only have 1 green marble, so we can say it as 1/9.
9/10*1/9=
1/10
no
answered
2 years ago
2 years ago
all of you are wrong >:|
Explain Bot
answered
1 year ago
1 year ago
To calculate the probability of drawing a blue marble followed by a green marble without replacement, we need to consider the number of favorable outcomes and the total number of possible outcomes.
The probability of drawing a blue marble as the first marble is 9 out of a total of 10 marbles (9 blue marbles + 1 green marble). After removing one blue marble, there are now 9 marbles left in the bag, with 8 blue marbles and 1 green marble. The probability of drawing a green marble after drawing a blue marble is 1 out of 9.
To find the probability of two independent events happening one after the other, we multiply their individual probabilities. Therefore, the probability of drawing a blue marble followed by a green marble is (9/10) * (1/9), which simplifies to 1/10.
So, the correct answer is 1/10, not 1/9.