Asked by m
Base 10 gets me so confused. How to convert 40 to base 2
Answers
Answered by
Dr Russ
With base 10 we have (for example)
(10,000) (1,000) (1000) (10) (1)
so 40 is 4 in the 10s and 0 in the 1s
So for base 2 start with the equivalent
(128)(64)(32)(16)(8)(4)(2)(1)
and look for the largest that is below 40, so here 32.
(32)(16)(8)(4)(2)(1)
1 0 0 0 0 0
is 32
8 remains. So the next hightest is 8
(32)(16)(8)(4)(2)(1)
1 0 1 0 0 0
and zero remains
so 101000
Does this help?
(10,000) (1,000) (1000) (10) (1)
so 40 is 4 in the 10s and 0 in the 1s
So for base 2 start with the equivalent
(128)(64)(32)(16)(8)(4)(2)(1)
and look for the largest that is below 40, so here 32.
(32)(16)(8)(4)(2)(1)
1 0 0 0 0 0
is 32
8 remains. So the next hightest is 8
(32)(16)(8)(4)(2)(1)
1 0 1 0 0 0
and zero remains
so 101000
Does this help?
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