Asked by Anonymous
i don't understand this, Show that if G(x) is an antiderivitive for f(X) and G(2)=-2 then G(4)=-7+((integral))top number 4 lower number 2 f(X)dx
its so confusing.? HELP. Thanks!!
its so confusing.? HELP. Thanks!!
Answers
Answered by
drwls
There is a fundamental theorem oc calculaus that states that the integral of f(x)dx from a to b is
G(b) - G(a). This assumes than f is the derivative of G (or G is the integral of f).
Therefore
G(4) = G(2) + integral(2 to 4)of f(x)dx
What you wrote is not correct. The -7 should be -2.
G(b) - G(a). This assumes than f is the derivative of G (or G is the integral of f).
Therefore
G(4) = G(2) + integral(2 to 4)of f(x)dx
What you wrote is not correct. The -7 should be -2.
Answered by
Anonymous
so does this mean that the equation is incorrect, or it is like undefined. That is exactly how it is in the paper, and it says to explain why it is right? So do i write it is incorrect.
There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
Submit Your Answer
We prioritize human answers over AI answers.
If you are human, and you can answer this question, please submit your answer.