Asked by charlie

If I have a function f(x), and am given its derivative, f'(x): may I take it as a given that f(x) is an integral of f'(x).

My reasoning is that 'undoing' the derivative gives me the derivative.

Eg is 1/3x^3 an integral of x^2?

Thanks.

Answers

Answered by drwls
Yes to both your answers and your reasoning. An arbitrary constant can always be added to the integral, however.
Answered by charlie
"My reasoning is that 'undoing' the derivative gives me the derivative."

oops, meant to write

......gives me the integral.
Answered by charlie
Thanks- that was quick!

Therefore, given my scenario, I could use the integral to calculate the area under the curve described by the derivative?

Charlie.
Answered by drwls
That is what I assumed you meant; I should have read your reasoning more closely. Anyway, you got it right
Answered by charlie
Great, and thank you very much.

Charlie.
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