Asked by charlie
If I have a function f(x), and am given its derivative, f'(x): may I take it as a given that f(x) is an integral of f'(x).
My reasoning is that 'undoing' the derivative gives me the derivative.
Eg is 1/3x^3 an integral of x^2?
Thanks.
My reasoning is that 'undoing' the derivative gives me the derivative.
Eg is 1/3x^3 an integral of x^2?
Thanks.
Answers
Answered by
drwls
Yes to both your answers and your reasoning. An arbitrary constant can always be added to the integral, however.
Answered by
charlie
"My reasoning is that 'undoing' the derivative gives me the derivative."
oops, meant to write
......gives me the integral.
oops, meant to write
......gives me the integral.
Answered by
charlie
Thanks- that was quick!
Therefore, given my scenario, I could use the integral to calculate the area under the curve described by the derivative?
Charlie.
Therefore, given my scenario, I could use the integral to calculate the area under the curve described by the derivative?
Charlie.
Answered by
drwls
That is what I assumed you meant; I should have read your reasoning more closely. Anyway, you got it right
Answered by
charlie
Great, and thank you very much.
Charlie.
Charlie.
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