Asked by quarantine
Given that f(x)=2x+cos(x) is one-to-one, use the formula
(f^−1)′(x)=1 / f′(f^−1(x))
to find (f^−1)′(1).
(f^−1)′(1)=
(f^−1)′(x)=1 / f′(f^−1(x))
to find (f^−1)′(1).
(f^−1)′(1)=
Answers
Answered by
oobleck
Let g(x) = f^-1(x)
f(0) = 1
So, g'(1) = 1/f'(0) = 1/(-sin(1))
f(0) = 1
So, g'(1) = 1/f'(0) = 1/(-sin(1))
Answered by
Agyei Stephen
Good
Answered by
Anonymous
f(x) = 2x + cos x
Hence, f ' ( x ) = 2 - sin x ----- (2)
suppose f ' (x) = g (x) ----- (1)
Then,
Let g(1) = w
==> 1 = f (w) (Cause (1) )
==> 1 = 2w + cos w
==> Solving this equation we get w = 0 and so w = g(1) = f ' (1) = 0
Using the formula,
(f^−1)′(1)= 1 / f′(f^−1(x))
= 1/ f' (g(1))
= 1/f'(0)
= 1/ 2 (Using equation 2)
Hence, f ' ( x ) = 2 - sin x ----- (2)
suppose f ' (x) = g (x) ----- (1)
Then,
Let g(1) = w
==> 1 = f (w) (Cause (1) )
==> 1 = 2w + cos w
==> Solving this equation we get w = 0 and so w = g(1) = f ' (1) = 0
Using the formula,
(f^−1)′(1)= 1 / f′(f^−1(x))
= 1/ f' (g(1))
= 1/f'(0)
= 1/ 2 (Using equation 2)
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