Question

So, I have a question on a project that asks why you get a different answer when measuring the side of a hypotenuse versus using the Pythagorean Theorem. I did get different answers, but I just can't figure out why.
CC
It would be great if you could answer this please!!
CC
I'm just bumping this up to the top of the page.
Steve
The only reason I can think of is that a measurement is subject to error (and is really only a decimal approximation), whereas the PT results is exact.
CC
Hey thanks Steve!