You say
f'(x) >= f(x) > 0 for all x in [0,∞)
show that
f'(x) >= f(x) for all x in [0,∞)
Is that not the hypothesis already?
Let f:[0,infinity) -> R be a differentiable function such that f'(x) >= f(x) > 0 for all x in [0,infinity). Construct a proof to show that f'(x) >= f(x) for all x in [0,infinity).
1 answer