Asked by Marcelo
why is sec(pi)x = (1/pi)secx
Answers
Answered by
Steve
as you have written it, it's not.
sec(π) = -1
I think your notation is faulty. I cannot think of any manipulations that end up with that 1/π out front.
Is there a derivative or integral involved somehow?
sec(π) = -1
I think your notation is faulty. I cannot think of any manipulations that end up with that 1/π out front.
Is there a derivative or integral involved somehow?
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