Asked by kimie
In 1866, the Republican-dominated Congress wanted to make sure that ex-slaves could vote, so they passed a Civil Rights Act declaring ex-slaves to be U.S. citizens.
--Why did Congress also submit the 14th Amendment in 1866 confirming citizenship for ex-slaves?
A)The president could later successfully veto the Civil Rights Act
B)The Southern states' legislatures cold nullify the Civil Rights Act
C)The Northern states' legislatures would not enforce the voting rights.
D)The Supreme Court could not declare an amendment unconstitutional.
THANK YOU!!
**we think it could be "B", but are not sure if that is right. Please help.
--Why did Congress also submit the 14th Amendment in 1866 confirming citizenship for ex-slaves?
A)The president could later successfully veto the Civil Rights Act
B)The Southern states' legislatures cold nullify the Civil Rights Act
C)The Northern states' legislatures would not enforce the voting rights.
D)The Supreme Court could not declare an amendment unconstitutional.
THANK YOU!!
**we think it could be "B", but are not sure if that is right. Please help.
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