It would be the first option "reduced influence of religion on the government".
The ayatollahs are radical Shia Muslims. They were/are desperate to inflict Shia Islam at every level on their civilians.
reduced influence of religion on the government
women did not have enough opportunities
insufficient acceptance of all people
redistribution of wealth across the population
The ayatollahs are radical Shia Muslims. They were/are desperate to inflict Shia Islam at every level on their civilians.
When you decide what your answer is, we'll be glad to check it.
http://www.asianhistory.about.com › Iran
The fact of the matter is that the Islamic revolution restricted women's rights in accordance with Shi'a Islamic tradition and "law." The influence of religion was not reduced, but increased. In pre-revolution Iran, women had more rights than post-revolution, and women objected.
The ayatollahs are high-ranking religious leaders in Iran, mainly belonging to the Shia Muslim clergy. They hold great influence over religious and political matters in Iran. On the other hand, the shah of Iran refers to Mohammad Reza Pahlavi, who ruled Iran as an autocratic monarch from 1941 until he was overthrown in 1979.
During his rule, the shah implemented a series of reforms known as the White Revolution, which aimed to modernize and secularize Iran. These reforms included land redistribution, industrialization, granting women more rights, and promoting Westernization. However, these reforms also significantly reduced the influence of religion in the government, a move that the ayatollahs strongly opposed.
To sum up, one objection of the ayatollahs to the rule of the shah of Iran was the reduced influence of religion on the government, caused by the shah's modernization and secularization reforms.