Asked by Sarah
In The Praise of Folly (1511) and other writings, Erasmus of Rotterdam used his humanistic training to mock many aspects of Catholic practice. Which did he openly criticize?
Thomas More’s Utopia described an ideal society; indirectly, then, it represented a stinging attack on the way things worked in 16th-Century England. Where did he set his tale, in the hopes of disguising his critique somewhat?
Why didn’t Catholic authorities in the 1520s manage to suppress Luther’s teachings in time to stop the emergence of a parallel religious society in Europe?
Thomas More’s Utopia described an ideal society; indirectly, then, it represented a stinging attack on the way things worked in 16th-Century England. Where did he set his tale, in the hopes of disguising his critique somewhat?
Why didn’t Catholic authorities in the 1520s manage to suppress Luther’s teachings in time to stop the emergence of a parallel religious society in Europe?
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