yes on the first.
On the second, the torque needed is the same, however, it will need a larger force to make that same torque.
Would someone check my thinking please.
A solid sphere (mass, r, and moment of inertia given) is rotating at a given angular speed. Friction is constantly applied at the 'equator' of the sphere, and brings it to rest in 3s.
Find the force. I worked out the torque, and then rearranged: T=rxF to give the force. Will i be right if the maths is ok?
Then, if the same force is applied (same conditions) half way between equator and pole, will it take longer or shorter to stop?
Thanks.
2 answers
Thanks for that.
So it would take longer to stop then?
So it would take longer to stop then?