Why do Keynesian economists believe that government has to intervene on the side of demand in a recession?
A.
It is congruent with Marxist economic theory.
B.
Any resulting deficits can be balanced with trade surpluses.***?
C.
Because in recessions, even zero percent interest cannot incentivize business.
D.
Because when the government spends directly on voters, it strengthens party loyalty.
(I'm sorry for so many questions, just really want to do well on this assignment and check to see if I'm on the right path in understanding things. I tremendously appreciate all the help I've already gotten)
3 answers
Could it be C? (Don't know too much about this question)
Never mind I think I found it in my lesson (it should be C)
C is correct