Which of the following best explains why the price of spices in Europe imported by the Portuguese declined?

Question

a. The Italians sold the spices for less because they did not need the money
b. The Portuguese were able to directly trade for spices, avoiding taxes placed by Muslim traders and Venetian intermediaries
c. Bartolomeu Dias was able to find vast spices in Africa
d. European desire for spices declined during this time and people were no longer interested in purchasing luxury goods from Asia

Answer 1

The option that best explains why the price of spices in Europe imported by the Portuguese declined is:

b. The Portuguese were able to directly trade for spices, avoiding taxes placed by Muslim traders and Venetian intermediaries.

This option highlights how the Portuguese, by finding direct trade routes to spice-producing regions in Asia, bypassed the existing trade monopolies and intermediaries, which helped to lower the prices.