When some places started letting men who didn't own any land vote, they also stopped free black men from voting. Why do you think both of these things happened at the same time?

Answer 1

This could be attributed to the fear of losing power and control by the ruling class at that time. Allowing all men, regardless of land ownership, to vote may have been seen as a threat to the existing hierarchy, so in order to maintain control, they disenfranchised another group of people - in this case, free black men. By restricting the voting rights of free black men, the ruling class could continue to exert their influence and maintain the status quo. Additionally, there may have been deep-rooted racism and prejudice at play, leading to the exclusion of black individuals from political participation.