What is the converse of the theorem statement: If a line parallel to one side of a triangle intersects the other two sides, then it divides the two sides proportionally.

If two sides of a triangle are divided in the same proportion, then the line connecting the dividing points on the sides is parallel to the third side of the triangle.

But how do I write it? Example: is it

A. In triangle QRS, ig RT/TQ=RU/US, then side TU is parallel to side QS.

B. In triangle ABC, if CD=DA and CE=EB,then side DE is parallel to side AB and DE=1/2AB

c. In triangle QRS, if side TU is parallel to side QS, then RT/TQ=RU/US.

HEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEELLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLLPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Similar Questions
    1. answers icon 0 answers
  1. Pythagorean Theorem Proofs Quick Check5 of 55 of 5 Items Question What is a converse of a theorem that is an if-then
    1. answers icon 1 answer
  2. #15 Which lines are parallel if m∠1 + m∠2 = 180? Justify your answer.* 1 point Captionless Image j || k by the converse of
    1. answers icon 1 answer
    1. answers icon 1 answer
more similar questions