Yes, 1, 2, and 2-1 all mean about the same thing.
=)
Thank you for your help.
posted by rfvv yesterday at 5:26pm.
1. This park is the best place to ride a bike.
2. This park is the best place in which we can ride a bike.
3. This park is the best place in order that we can ride a bike.
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Does #1 mean #2 or #3?
Does 'to ride a bike' modify 'place'?
English - Reed yesterday at 5:54pm
"to ride" is the verb. It modifies nothing.
1 and 2 mean the same. 3 doesn't really make sense. We may know what is meant, but the words "in order that we can" are really meaningless.
English - Reed yesterday at 5:59pm
I am too shorthand in the above. The predicate in the sentence, as you know, is "is". "To ride a bike" does modify place. "ride a bike" can be taken as the object of the preposition "to", a noun phrase describing an activity. "to ride" is also a verb. It does get confusing.
English - Writeacher yesterday at 6:06pm
"To ride a bike" is an infinitive phrase.
It's serving as an adjective in sentence 1, describing "place."
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Thank you for your help.
Then, you mean that the following are the same.
Right?
1. This park is the best place to ride a bike.
2. This park is the best place in which we can ride a bike.
2-1. This park is the best place in which to ride a bike.
1 answer
1 answer