The statement is False.
To see why, let's calculate the combined effect of the two successive discounts.
- Start with an original price of \( P \).
- After a 15% discount, the price becomes \( P - 0.15P = 0.85P \).
- Then, applying a 25% discount on the new price: \[ 0.85P - 0.25(0.85P) = 0.85P \times 0.75 = 0.6375P \]
Now, let's compare this to a one-time discount of 40%:
- A 40% discount on the original price is: \[ P - 0.40P = 0.60P \]
Now we see:
- Successive discounts yield \( 0.6375P \)
- A single discount yields \( 0.60P \)
Since \( 0.6375P \) is greater than \( 0.60P \), the two discounts are not equivalent. Thus, the statement is indeed False.