<<Rolle's lemma essentially states that any real-valued differentiable function that attains equal values at two distinct points must have at least one stationary point somewhere between them—that is, a point where the first derivative (the slope of the tangent line to the graph of the is zero...>>
so the function is ln(1)<ln(4). There are not two points which have equal values.
f'(ln(x+2))=1/(x+2) which is postive slope over the domain of x.
so a) is not true
b) is almost right (but the two points don't have to be endpoints of the domain), but in fact, there are no two points existing.
c. nope
d) yep. Best answer.
Rolle's theorem cannot be applied t the function f(x)= ln(x+2) on the interval [-1,2] because
a) f is not differentiable on the interval [-1,2]
b) f(-1)≠ f(2)
c) All of these
d) Rolle's theorem can be applied to f(x)= ln(x+2) on the interval [-1,2]
1 answer