posted by rfvv Wednesday, September 6, 2017 at 3:31pm.
The blues in Picasso's painting seem to communicate his sadness. It makes me a little sad, too.
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Q1: Do we have to use the plural form 'blues'?
Q2: What does 'It' refer to in the second sentence? Does it refer to 'The blues' or 'Picasso's painting'?
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English - Writeacher Wednesday, September 6, 2017 at 3:39pm
Yes, because the reference is to different shades of blue.
I'd say "it" is referring to "sadness" in the previous sentence.
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When you look at the painting, how do you feel? Picasso painted it when his close friend died. The blues in Picasso's painting seem to communicate his sadness. It makes me a little sad, too.
(Thank you for your help. In this context, doesn't 'it' refer to 'the painting' in the last sentence?)
3 answers
2. The blues in the painting seem to communicate his sadness, and it makes me a little sad, too.
3. The blues in the painting seem to communicate his sadness, which makes me a little sad, too.
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I've changes sentences as in the above.
In #3, what is the antecedent of 'which'? Isn't it 'his sadness'? Or can the antecedent of 'which' be 'the painting?
In #3, "which" refers to "sadness," yes. One thing about pronouns and their antecedents (the words the pronouns refer to) is their closeness in the sentence. Since "sadness" occurs immediately before "which" then the reference is very clear.
1 answer