To determine which amount of flour is equivalent to \( \frac{2}{3} \) of a cup, let’s evaluate the provided options:
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\( \frac{3}{3} \) of a cup - This is equivalent to 1 cup, which is not equal to \( \frac{2}{3} \).
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\( \frac{1}{3} \) of a cup - This is less than \( \frac{2}{3} \).
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\( \frac{5}{6} \) of a cup - To compare \( \frac{5}{6} \) to \( \frac{2}{3} \), we can convert \( \frac{2}{3} \) to have a denominator of 6: \[ \frac{2}{3} = \frac{2 \times 2}{3 \times 2} = \frac{4}{6} \] Since \( \frac{5}{6} \) is greater than \( \frac{4}{6} \), this option is not equivalent.
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\( \frac{4}{6} \) of a cup - We already determined that \( \frac{2}{3} = \frac{4}{6} \), so this option is equivalent.
The correct answer is \( \frac{4}{6} \) of a cup.