is the inverse of a function always a function explain in one sentance
2 answers
Yes, the inverse of a function is always a function because it is a mapping from the range to the domain of the original function.
AAAaannndd the bot gets it wrong yet again!
No. The inverse of a 1-to-1 function is always a function
No. The inverse of a 1-to-1 function is always a function
1 answer