To determine if \( \frac{1}{6} \cdot \frac{9}{10} > \frac{1}{6} \), we can simplify the left side of the inequality:
\[ \frac{1}{6} \cdot \frac{9}{10} = \frac{9}{60} = \frac{3}{20} \]
Now we need to compare \( \frac{3}{20} \) and \( \frac{1}{6} \). To do this, we can find a common denominator or convert both fractions to decimal form.
Converting \( \frac{1}{6} \) to a decimal: \[ \frac{1}{6} \approx 0.1667 \]
Now, converting \( \frac{3}{20} \) to a decimal: \[ \frac{3}{20} = 0.15 \]
Now we can compare: \[ 0.15 < 0.1667 \]
Thus, we conclude that:
\[ \frac{1}{6} \cdot \frac{9}{10} < \frac{1}{6} \]
Therefore, the answer is 2 (no).