In the last example, we saw that the conditional distribution of 𝑋, which was a uniform over a smaller range (and in some sense, less uncertain), had a smaller variance, i.e., 𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘‹βˆ£π΄)≀𝖡𝖺𝗋(𝑋). Here is an example where this is not true. Let π‘Œ be uniform on {0,1,2} and let 𝐡 be the event that π‘Œ belongs to {0,2}.

a) What is the variance of π‘Œ?

𝖡𝖺𝗋(π‘Œ)=

1 answer

(a) 2/3
(b) 1