(a) 2/3
(b) 1
In the last example, we saw that the conditional distribution of π, which was a uniform over a smaller range (and in some sense, less uncertain), had a smaller variance, i.e., π΅πΊπ(πβ£π΄)β€π΅πΊπ(π). Here is an example where this is not true. Let π be uniform on {0,1,2} and let π΅ be the event that π belongs to {0,2}.
a) What is the variance of π?
π΅πΊπ(π)=
1 answer