If we take a point of reference that is a certain distance away from where the force is applied and the force is acting on the same axis as the distance axis i.e. the force vector and the distance vector are on the same axis, only in opposite directions, would the torque of this force be zero? (using the torque eqn #3 which is equal to rFsinθ where θ=180°--angle between vectors that are tail-to-tail)
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If the sine of the angle (as in the same or opposite directions) is zero, then there is no torque.
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