Oh! Does it have something to do with the loss of the corpus luteum? If the CL is gone, then no estrogen/progesterone would be produced. These hormones are essential for pregnancy, and so the removal of ovaries would lead to...the loss of the pregnancy...or abnormalities?
Also, I'm thinking that in the first question, there wouldn't be as much effect because estrogen/progesterone levels are not really that high anyways. But after 2 months, the levels increase significantly, and so loss of pregnancy/abnormalities would be the result.
Am I thinking about this correctly?
"If the ovaries were removed between the start of pregnancy and the second month then.....because....."
"If the ovaries were removed after the second month....."
I'm confused because I thought that once pregnancy begins, no more ovulation occurs until pregnancy is over. So I assume the ovaries don't play a role in pregnancy. And so if they were removed (no matter what time after pregnancy), shouldn't there be no effect?
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