If I have cards numbered 1 through 40 and I randomly draw 3 then replace them, shuffle them and draw three again what are the odds of drawing one of the numbers more than once

Answer 1

The first three cards are irrelevant.
For the second draw, the
p=P(repeat at least once)
= 1-P(no repeat at all)
=1 - (37*36*35)/(40*39*38)
=211/988

Odds: p : (1-p) = 211/988: 777/988
= 211 : 777