Asked by alex
how do you show that lim((e^(h)-1)/h)=1 as h approches 0 given the series e^x= 1+x+(x^2/2!)+(x^3/3!)...
And given F(x)=e^x how do you find the lim((f(x+h)-f(x))/h)as h approches 0
And given F(x)=e^x how do you find the lim((f(x+h)-f(x))/h)as h approches 0
Answers
Answered by
drwls
One problem at a time, please.
Using the series form of e^h:
(e^h -1)/h = 1 + h/2! + h^2/3! + ... h^n/(n+1)!
As h--> 0, all of the terms that involve h become zero and only the 1 remains. Therefore that is the limit.
Using the series form of e^h:
(e^h -1)/h = 1 + h/2! + h^2/3! + ... h^n/(n+1)!
As h--> 0, all of the terms that involve h become zero and only the 1 remains. Therefore that is the limit.
Answered by
drwls
2. That would be the definition of f'(x), which would be e^x = 1.
One can arrive at that result using the series expansion.
lim((f(x+h)-f(x))/h)
x-->0
= (1/h) Lim [1 + (x+h) + (x+h)^2/2! ... - 1 -x -x^2/2! - ...]/h
= Lim 1 + x + (1/3!)[(x+h)^3-x^3] + ...
= 1 + x + x^2/2 + ...
= e^x
One can arrive at that result using the series expansion.
lim((f(x+h)-f(x))/h)
x-->0
= (1/h) Lim [1 + (x+h) + (x+h)^2/2! ... - 1 -x -x^2/2! - ...]/h
= Lim 1 + x + (1/3!)[(x+h)^3-x^3] + ...
= 1 + x + x^2/2 + ...
= e^x
There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
Submit Your Answer
We prioritize human answers over AI answers.
If you are human, and you can answer this question, please submit your answer.