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Hello, this is an upper-level question, and I would sincerely appreciate help before Tuesday.

I am reading a journal article, and there is one conclusion in it that I do not understand.

It predicts a postsynaptic mechanism when EPSP amplitudes do not vary across trials, and a presynaptic mechanism when EPSP amplitudes do vary across trials.

I don't understand how the variation is related to the pre/postsynaptic mechanism.

I appreciate your help and guidance. Thanks.

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