arctan(1/x) = arccot(x)
f' = 1/(1+x^2) + -1/(1+x^2) = 0
why?
because arccot(x) = pi/2 - arctan(x)
f(x) = pi/2
For x>0 find and simplify the derivative of f(x)= arctan(x) + arctan(1/x).
I've done the problem a few times and I keep getting
(1)/(1+(x)^2)+(1)/(1+(1/(1/x)^2))(-x)^-2
but something about the answer is wrong and I cannot figure out what.
1 answer