For t\in \mathbb {R}, define the following two functions:

f_1(t)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi }}\exp \left(-\frac{\max (1,t^2)}{2}\right)

and

f_2(t)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi }}\exp \left(-\frac{\min (1,t^2)}{2}\right).

In this problem, we explore whether these functions are valid probability density functions.

Determine whether the function f_1 is a valid PDF for a continuous random variable that can take any value on the real line. If not, is there a number c>0, such that c f_1 is a valid PDF?

Yes, it is a valid PDF.

No, it is not a valid PDF, but there is a constant c making cf_1 a valid PDF.

No, it is not a valid PDF, and there is no constant c making cf_1 a valid PDF.

None of the above.

1 answer

To determine if the function f₁ is a valid PDF, we need to check if its integral over the entire real line is equal to 1.

∫f₁(t) dt = ∫(1/√(2π)) * exp((-max(1,t²))/2) dt.

Since the function is defined differently for negative and positive values of t, we can split the integral into two parts:

∫f₁(t) dt = ∫(1/√(2π)) * exp((-max(1,t²))/2) dt from -∞ to -1 + ∫(1/√(2π)) * exp((-max(1,t²))/2) dt from 1 to ∞.

For the first integral, let t' = -t. Then the integral becomes:

∫(1/√(2π)) * exp((-max(1,t²))/2) dt' from -∞ to -1.

Since exp((-max(1,t²))/2) is always positive, we can remove the max function:

∫(1/√(2π)) * exp(-t'²/2) dt' from -∞ to -1.

This is the integral of a standard normal distribution from -∞ to -1, which is equal to the probability that a standard normal random variable is less than -1, P(Z < -1). This probability is positive but less than 1.

For the second integral, we can remove the max function as well:

∫(1/√(2π)) * exp(-t²/2) dt from 1 to ∞.

This is the integral of a standard normal distribution from 1 to ∞, which is equal to the probability that a standard normal random variable is greater than 1, P(Z > 1). This probability is positive but less than 1.

Since both of these integrals are less than 1, the total integral over the entire real line is less than 2. Therefore, f₁ is not a valid PDF because its integral is not equal to 1.

To determine if there is a constant c>0 such that cf₁ is a valid PDF, we need to find the value of c that makes the integral of cf₁ equal to 1.

Let's consider the integral of cf₁:

∫cf₁(t) dt = ∫c(1/√(2π)) * exp((-max(1,t²))/2) dt.

We can split this integral into two parts as well:

∫cf₁(t) dt = ∫c(1/√(2π)) * exp((-max(1,t²))/2) dt from -∞ to -1 + ∫c(1/√(2π)) * exp((-max(1,t²))/2) dt from 1 to ∞.

The integrals in both parts are equal to c*P(Z < -1) and c*P(Z > 1) respectively, where Z is a standard normal random variable. Since both of these probabilities are positive but less than 1, there is no value of c>0 that can make the integral equal to 1.

Therefore, f₁ is not a valid PDF, and there is no constant c>0 that can make cf₁ a valid PDF.

The correct answer is: No, it is not a valid PDF, and there is no constant c making cf₁ a valid PDF.