I think you need to clarify and explain your answer better.
Study this site for ideas.
http://www.associatedcontent.com/article/494863/mercantilism_and_the_economics_of_colonialism.html?cat=37
Explain the relationship between mercantilism and colonialism. Can there ever be a profit without one party being short-changed? Explain.
Mercantilism is an economic theory and the primary reason behing Europe's desire to colonize new lands.Yes there can still be a profit; profits are large when a country spends a small amount of money on the raw materials needed to create a product and sells the finished product for a a high price. Mercantilism was meant to serve the interests of the emire, not he colony. Colonies existed for the benefit of the home country.
Please correct me if I'm wrong, thanks
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