you are correct in that cos(x) is the derivative. So, you need to show that there is at least one value of c in [0,2pi] such that cos(c) = 0.
That would be pi/2 and 3pi/2.
Determine whether Rolle's Theorem can be applied to f on the closed interval [a,b]. (Select all that apply.)
f (x) = sin(x), [0, 2π]
If Rolle's Theorem can be applied, find all values of c in the open interval (a, b) such that f '(c) = 0. (Enter your answers as a comma-separated list. If Rolle's Theorem cannot be applied, enter NA.)
I thought the derivative would be cos(x) so then cos(0) would be 1 but thatz wrong so now I don't understand how to do this!
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THNKS :)
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