Convert. Simplify your answer and write it as a proper fraction or as a whole or mixed number.

Question

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pints =
1
2
of a quart

Answer 1

To convert \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart to pints, we can use the conversion factor that 1 quart equals 2 pints.

So, to find out how many pints are in \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart, we can multiply:

\[ \frac{1}{2} \text{ quart} \times 2 \text{ pints/quart} = 1 \text{ pint} \]

Thus, \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart is equal to 1 pint.