Convert. Simplify your answer and write it as a proper fraction or as a whole or mixed number.

Question

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cups =
1
2
of a pint

Answer 1

To convert $\frac{1}{2}$ of a pint to cups, we need to know the conversion factor between pints and cups.

1 pint is equal to 2 cups. Therefore, to convert $\frac{1}{2}$ of a pint to cups, we can use the following calculation:

$$\frac{1}{2}\text{ pint}\times 2\frac{\text{cups}}{\text{pint}}=\frac{1}{2}\times 2=1\text{ cup}$$

So, $\frac{1}{2}$ of a pint is equal to $1$ cup.

The final answer is:

$$1\text{ cup}$$