Can the Isosceles Triangle Theorem be written as a biconditional? If yes, rewrite it as one, if no, explain why not.

Answer 1

If both a statement and its converse are true, it is a biconditional.

1. If all three angles of a triangle are equal, then all three sides are equal (equilateral).
True

2. If all three sides of a triangle are equal, then all three angles are equal.
True

Sure looks biconditional to me.

Answer 2

Thanks! I've been working on that problem like.. all morning.

Answer 3

An expression of biconditional in this case:

A triangle is equilateral if and only if all three angles are equal.

(The word "equilateral" means "equal sides".)

Answer 4

not sure if i’m right on this but i don’t agree necessarily with damon bc it’s isosceles triangle where only 2 angles and sides are congruent not 3. maybe he’s right and im just not understanding but that’s my take on it