Asked by natassa
can someone tell me how can we calculate (expi)^i.
there is one thought to say that it is equal to exp(-1) but this is not true.
i think that one has to use the euler's equation : exp(ix)=cosx+isinx. but in this case, x=1? and how can we calculate after (cos1+isin1)^i?
anyway that was my way of thinking, of course someone specialised on maths knows better than me? Any ideas?
there is one thought to say that it is equal to exp(-1) but this is not true.
i think that one has to use the euler's equation : exp(ix)=cosx+isinx. but in this case, x=1? and how can we calculate after (cos1+isin1)^i?
anyway that was my way of thinking, of course someone specialised on maths knows better than me? Any ideas?
Answers
There are no human answers yet.
There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
Submit Your Answer
We prioritize human answers over AI answers.
If you are human, and you can answer this question, please submit your answer.