No, Angie is not correct. The statement "irrational numbers are real numbers" is true because irrational numbers, such as √2 or π, are part of the set of real numbers, which includes both rational and irrational numbers.
Angie claims that the statement "irrational numbers are real numbers" is NEVER true.
Is Angie correct?
If yes, explain why. (in only 2 sentences simple
If no, provide an example (in only 2 sentences simple)
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